• Natanael@slrpnk.net
    link
    fedilink
    arrow-up
    12
    arrow-down
    1
    ·
    8 months ago

    No, it’s because the finding was made in civil court, not criminal court, therefore not convicted.

      • gingernate@lemmy.world
        link
        fedilink
        arrow-up
        5
        arrow-down
        1
        ·
        8 months ago

        A conviction leads to sentencing (normally) in a criminal matter. A cival court is settling a cival matter, not a criminal one. Criminal courts convict you of a crime and sentence you to some kind of punishment. Cival courts can make you pay a fine, but not convict you of a crime.

        • Daft_ish@lemmy.world
          link
          fedilink
          arrow-up
          3
          arrow-down
          3
          ·
          edit-2
          8 months ago

          Again, another argument of semantics.

          Would change nothing for me, maybe for yourself, to say Donald Trump was found liable of sexual assault by a judge and jury in the court of law.

          Edit:

          You keep obfuscating, though.

          • Schadrach@lemmy.sdf.org
            link
            fedilink
            arrow-up
            1
            ·
            edit-2
            8 months ago

            That would be a more accurate statement, yes.

            But there’s more to it than just semantics. There’s also the level of certainty - civil trials have a dramatically lower standard of evidence than criminal trials.

            So when you say he’s been convicted of rape, you’re saying that 12 people were convinced beyond a reasonable doubt that he committed rape. But that’s not the case - instead a judge was convinced it was at least slightly more likely than not that he committed rape. That’s a very different standard.