Trump has repeatedly said in impromptu rants at his trial that the case is a meritless, political “witch hunt” because he is richer than the statements sent to banks suggest, and lenders didn’t care about those figures anyway because they always did their own analysis, always got paid back in full and continued to lend to him.

Really? Didn’t he originally have to turn to Deutsche Bank, and later the Russians and Saudis, because American banks (and then other banks) refused to lend to him anymore?